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By contrast, it is often stressed that the mathematical sense of infinity in Aristotle or his inquiry about matter can only lead to the concept of a merely potential infinity.
It should be clear by now that the difference between Aristotle's [TEXT NOT REPRODUCIBLE IN ASCII] and the medieval ens infinitum cannot be explained away by a appeal to the difference between a merely potential infinity and an actual one, as if it were a matter of simply switching a concept from a negative (and pagan) pole to a positive (and Christian) one.
Is potential infinity of parts and infinity of potential parts?

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